WEEKEND COMPETITION QUIZ

60 Questions

Quiz Description

This quiz is made up of 60 questions of which 15 of them are Mathematics, 15 Biology, 15 Physics and 15 of them are chemistry.

1:

Two particles start simultaneously from the same point and move along
two straight lines, one with uniform velocity v and other with a
uniform acceleration a. If alphais the angle between the lines of motion of two particles, then the least value of magnitude of relative velocity will be at time given by


Correct
  • 1:
    (v/a)sin(alpha)
  • 2:
    (v/a)cos(alpha)
  • 3:
    (v/a)tan(alpha)
  • 4:
    (v/a)cot(alpha)
2:

A pebble of mass 0.05 kg is thrown vertically upwards. The direction and magnitude of the net force on the pebble is given below, choose the incorrect option.


Correct
  • 1:
    During its upward motion, force is 0.5 N in vertically upward.
  • 2:
    During its downward motion, force is 0.5 N in vertically downward.
  • 3:
    If the pebble was thrown at an angle of say 45° with the horizontal direction, force is 0.5 N in vertically downward (Ignoring air resistance)
  • 4:
    At the highest point, where it is momentarily at rest, force is 0.5 N in vertically downward.
3:

A block of mass m is placed on another rough block of mass M and both are moving horizontally with same acceleration a due to a force which is applied on the lower block, then work done by lower block on the upper block in moving a distance s will be?


Correct
  • 1:
    Mas
  • 2:
    (M+m)as
  • 3:
    (M^2/m)as
  • 4:
    mas
4:

A. A proton is kept at rest. A positively charged particle is released from rest at a distance d in its field. Consider two experiments; one in which the charged particle is also a proton and in another, a positron. In the same time t, the work done on the two
moving charged particles is?


Correct
  • 1:
    Same as the force law is involved in the two experiments.
  • 2:
    Less for the case of a positron, as the positron moves away more rapidly and the force on it weakens.
  • 3:
    More in the case of positron, as the positron moves away at a larger distance.
  • 4:
    Same as the work done by charged particle on the stationary proton.
5:

A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40g with a velocity 1200m/s. the man holding it can exert a maximum force of 144N on the gun. How many bullets can he fire per second at the most?


Correct
  • 1:
    two
  • 2:
    four
  • 3:
    one
  • 4:
    three
6:

A bomb of mass 12kg is dropped by a fighter plane moving horizontally with a speed of 100m/s from a height of 1km from the ground. The bomb exploded after 10s into two pieces of mass in the ration 1:5. I f the small part started moving horizontally with a speed of 600m/s the speed of bigger part will be ? (take g=10m/s^2


Correct
  • 1:
    100m/s
  • 2:
    10m/s
  • 3:
    120m/s
  • 4:
    300m/s
7:

Two spherical planets have the same mass but densities in the ratio 1:8. For these planets, the


Correct
  • 1:
    acceleration due to gravity will be in the ratio 4:1
  • 2:
    acceleration due to gravity will be in the ratio 1:4
  • 3:
    C. escape velocities from their surfaces will be in the ratio sqr(2):1
  • 4:
    escape velocities from their surfaces will be in the ratio 1:sqr(2)
8:

A 20cm long capillary tube is dipped in water. The water rises up to 8cm. If the entire arrangement is put in a freely falling elevator, the length of water column in the capillary tube will be?


Correct
  • 1:
    8cm
  • 2:
    10cm
  • 3:
    4cm
  • 4:
    20cm
9:

Transverse waves are generated in two uniform wires A and B of the same material
by attaching their free ends to a vibrating source of frequency 200Hz. The cross-section of A is half that of B while the tension on A is twice that on B. The ratio of wavelengths of the transverse waves in A and B is?


<p>Transverse waves are generated in two uniform wires A and B of the same material<br/>by attaching their free ends to a vibrating source of frequency 200Hz. The cross-section of A is half that of B while the tension on A is twice that on B. The ratio of wavelengths of the transverse waves in A and B is? </p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
10:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
11:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
12:


<p> </p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
13:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
14:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
15:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
16:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
17:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
18:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
19:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
20:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
21:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
22:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
23:

Which of the following properties generally
decreases along a period?


Correct
  • 1:
    Ionization energy
  • 2:
    metallic character
  • 3:
    Electron affinity
  • 4:
    valency
24:

In the modern periodic table, the period indicates the value of:


Correct
  • 1:
    Atomic Number
  • 2:
    Atomic Mass
  • 3:
    Principal Quantum Number
  • 4:
    Azimuthal Quantum Number
25:

Which one of the following does not have sp² hybridised carbon?


Correct
  • 1:
    Acetone
  • 2:
    Acetic acid
  • 3:
    Acetonitrile
  • 4:
    Acetamide
26:

Among the following mixtures, dipole-dipole as the major interaction, is present in?


Correct
  • 1:
    benzene and ethanol
  • 2:
    acetonitrile and acetone
  • 3:
    KCl and water
  • 4:
    benzene and carbon tetrachloride
27:

Aldehydes other than formaldehyde react with Grignard’s reagent to give addition products which on hydrolysis give?


Correct
  • 1:
    tertiary alcohols
  • 2:
    secondary alcohols
  • 3:
    primary alcohols
  • 4:
    carboxylic acids
28:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
29:

What is the test to differentiate between penta-2-one and pentan-3-one?


Correct
  • 1:
    Iodoform test
  • 2:
    Benedict’s test
  • 3:
    Fehling’s test
  • 4:
    Aldol condensation test
30:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
31:

Meiosis does not occur in?


Correct
  • 1:
    asexually reproducing diploid individuals
  • 2:
    sexually reproducing haploid individuals
  • 3:
    sexually reproducing diploid individuals
  • 4:
    all of these.
32:

Oestrous cycle is reported in?


Correct
  • 1:
    humans and monkeys
  • 2:
    chimpanzees and gorillas
  • 3:
    cows and sheep
  • 4:
    none of these.
33:

Palaeontological evidences for evolution refer to the?


Correct
  • 1:
    homologous organs
  • 2:
    analogous organs
  • 3:
    development of embryo
  • 4:
    fossils
34:

(p+q)2= p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 represents an equation used in?


Correct
  • 1:
    population genetics
  • 2:
    Mendilian genetics
  • 3:
    Biometrics
  • 4:
    molecular genetics.
35:

According to one of the most widely accepted theories, earth’s atmosphere before origin
of life was


Correct
  • 1:
    Oxidising
  • 2:
    oxidising along with H 2
  • 3:
    reducing with free O 2 in small amount
  • 4:
    reducing with oxygen absent in O 2 form.
36:

In sickle cell anaemia glutamic acid is replaced by valine. Which one of the
following triplets codes for valine?


Correct
  • 1:
    GGG
  • 2:
    A AG
  • 3:
    G A A
  • 4:
    GUG
37:

Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one effect. The phenomenon is called?


Correct
  • 1:
    multiple allelism
  • 2:
    pleiotropy
  • 3:
    polygeny
  • 4:
    mosaicism
38:

1. Phenotypic
and genotypic ratio is similar in case of

A. complete
dominance

B.

C. over
dominance

Phenotypic and genotypic ratio is similar in case of


Correct
  • 1:
    complete dominance
  • 2:
    incomplete dominance
  • 3:
    over dominance
  • 4:
    epistasis.
39:

The function of ribosomes is?


Correct
  • 1:
    Metabolism
  • 2:
    lipid synthesis
  • 3:
    protein synthesis
  • 4:
    photosynthesis
40:

The largest cell in the human body is-?


Correct
  • 1:
    Nerve cell
  • 2:
    Muscle cell
  • 3:
    Liver cell
  • 4:
    Kidney cell
41:

Keeping in view the fluid mosaic model for the structure of cell membrane, which one of
the following statements is correct with respect to the movement of lipids and
proteins from one lipid monolayer to the other (described as flip-flop
movement)?


Correct
  • 1:
    Neither lipids, nor proteins can flip-flop
  • 2:
    Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop
  • 3:
    While lipids can rarely flip-flop, proteins can not
  • 4:
    While proteins can flip-flop, lipids can not
42:

During prolonged fasting, in what sequence are the following organic compounds used up
by the body?


Correct
  • 1:
    First carbohydrates, next proteins and lastly lipids
  • 2:
    First carbohydrates, next fats and lastly proteins
  • 3:
    First fats, next carbohydrates and lastly proteins
  • 4:
    First proteins next lipids and lastly carbohydrates
43:

Emulsification of fat takes place through?


Correct
  • 1:
    Bile pigments
  • 2:
    Liver enzymes
  • 3:
    Bile salts
  • 4:
    Enzymes of small intestine
44:

Label the parts of the human respiratory system.


<p>Label the parts of the human respiratory system. </p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A- Oesophagus, B- Bronchioles, C- Lungs
  • 2:
    A- Trachea, B- Bronchioles, C- Lungs
  • 3:
    A- Trachea, B- Bronchus, C- Lungs
  • 4:
    A- Oesophagus, B- Bronchioles, C- Pleura
45:

The yellow pigment derived from heme breakdown and excreted by kidneys is?


Correct
  • 1:
    Uric acid
  • 2:
    Urochrome
  • 3:
    Cholesterol
  • 4:
    Melanin
46:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
47:

From 6 different novels and 3 different dictionaries, 4 novels and 1 dictionary are to be selected and arranged in a row on a shelf so that the dictionary is always in the middle. The number of such arrangements is:


Correct
  • 1:
    Less than 500
  • 2:
    At least 500 but less than 750
  • 3:
    At least 750 but less than 1000
  • 4:
    At least 1000
48:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
49:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
50:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
51:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
52:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
53:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
54:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
55:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
56:

Twenty meter of meters is available for fencing off a lower bed in theform of a circular sector. Then the maximum are in (sq.m) of the flower-bed, is


Correct
  • 1:
    30
  • 2:
    12.5
  • 3:
    10
  • 4:
    25
57:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
58:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
59:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D
60:


<p></p>
Correct
  • 1:
    A
  • 2:
    B
  • 3:
    C
  • 4:
    D

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WEEKEND COMPETITION QUIZ
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